Free PMP Exam Brain dumps – Pass Fast with Latest Questions
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Free PMP Exam Brain dumps – Pass Fast with Latest Questions
NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following is an example of contract administration?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 2
Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 3
Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:
A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.
B. Conduct risk management activities for a project.
C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 4
What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?
A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.
D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following forecasting methods uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcomes?
A. Time series
B. Judgmental
C. Econometric
D. Simulation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 6
Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?
A. WBS
B. CPI
C. OBS
D. BOM
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?
A. Risk management plan
B. Risk register
C. Change requests
D. Risk response plan
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 8
Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:
A. influencing
B. leadership
C. motivation
D. coaching
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 9
Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
A. Functional managers and manager of project managers
B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 10
A primary function of a project management office is to support project managers in a variety of ways, including which of the following?
A. Developing and managing project policies, procedures, templates, and other shared documentation
B. Acting as the project sponsor by providing financial resources to the project
C. Resolving issues and change management within a shared governance structure
D. Aligning organizational/strategic direction that affects project and program goals
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 10
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 19
Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:
A. organizational skills
B. technical skills
C. communication skills
D. hard skills
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 20
Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them?
A. Project sponsor and project manager
B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 22
Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?
A. Affinity
B. Scatter
C. Fishbone
D. Matrix
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 25
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
A. Decomposition
B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 30
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 33
Through whom do project managers accomplish work?
A. Consultants and stakeholders
B. Stakeholders and functional managers
C. Project team members and consultants
D. Project team members and stakeholders
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 34
Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?
A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.
B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.
C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.
D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 39
In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?
A. Acquire Project Team
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Manage Project Execution
D. Develop Project Charter
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 44
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?
A. Product scope description
B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 47
Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
C. Requirements management plan
D. Requirements documentation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 48
Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:
A. project staff assignments
B. project tea m acquisition
C. managing conflicting interests
D. communication methods
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 51
A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:
A. contingent risk
B. residual risk
C. potential risk
D. secondary risk
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 53
A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:
A. prototypes.
B. expert judgment.
C. alternatives identification.
D. product analysis.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 57
The stakeholder register is an output of:
A. Identify Stakeholders.
B. Plan Stakeholder Management.
C. Control Stakeholder Engagement.
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 61
Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:
A. Available organizational assets
B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 64
Organizations perceive risks as:
A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.
B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.
C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.
D. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 66
The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:
A. negotiation
B. organizational theory
C. meeting
D. networking
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 68
The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders support for the project.
B. Document the characteristics of the product.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Formally authorize the project.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 73
A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 78
The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:
A. Earned value management.
B. Forecasting.
C. Critical chain methodology.
D. Critical path methodology.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 81
Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Organizational standard processes
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 83
Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Risk response planning
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 88
Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 92
Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Mandatory
D. Internal
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 97
Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:
A. portfolio
B. program
C. selection
D. sub portfolio
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 99
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 100
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?
A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 105
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?
A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness
B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics
C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 108
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?
A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.70
D. 1.36
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 111
Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Project scope statement
C. WBS dictionary
D. Work performance measurements
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 113
The project charter is an input to which process?
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 118
Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?
A. Scope baseline
B. Scope management plan
C. Change management plan
D. Cost baseline
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 121
A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?
A. Plan Stakeholder Management
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Control Stakeholder Engagement
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 125
Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:
A. corrective action.
B. preventive action.
C. non-conformance report,
D. defect repair.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 129
In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Planning
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 132
Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Functional manager supported by the project manager
D. Project management office
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 133
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Expert judgment
D. Decomposition
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 135
Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.
B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.
C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.
D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 136
The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 137
When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:
A. improvement
B. program
C. result
D. portfolio
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 139
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 140
Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?
A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate
B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept
C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept
D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 141
In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)
C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 143
Which stakeholder approves a project's result?
A. Customer
B. Sponsor
C. Seller
D. Functional manager
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 144
Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?
A. Uniform
B. Continuous
C. Discrete
D. Linear
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 149
Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?
A. Templates, forms, and standards
B. Change requests
C. Product analysis
D. Project assumptions
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 152
Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?
A. Project statement of work
B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 155
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Project document updates
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Change requests
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 159
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 164
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?
A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 167
Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 171
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 172
What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 174
Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initiating
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 178
Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 182
A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Requirements document
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 187
The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:
A. Define Scope.
B. Develop Project Management Plan.
C. Plan Scope Management.
D. Plan Quality Management.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 189
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?
A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 193
PMBOI Guide is a standard that describes:
A. product-oriented processes.
B. project management processes.
C. product-oriented and project management processes.
D. program management and project management processes.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 197
A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?
A. Plan contracting
B. Requesting seller responses
C. Selecting seller's
D. Planning purchase and acquisition
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 201
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 204
Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Change control process
D. Team performance assessment
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 207
Project management processes ensure the:
A. alignment with organizational strategy
B. efficient means to achieve the project objectives
C. performance of the project team
D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 208
Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?
A. Work performance reports
B. Assumptions logs
C. Network diagrams
D. Academic studies
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 213
For any given project, the project manager, in collaboration with the project team, is responsible for:
A. Applying knowledge, skills, and processes uniformly.
B. Informing the project sponsor about which processes are going to be used.
C. Tailoring the processes to fit the abilities of the organization.
D. Determining which particular processes are appropriate.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 216
Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?
A. Cause-and-effect diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 220
Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)
B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 224
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
A. Plan Risk Management.
B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 229
Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?
A. Influence diagrams
B. Brainstorming
C. Assumption analysis
D. SWOT analysis
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 233
Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 236
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
A. Cost baseline
B. Service level agreement
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Business case
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 240
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 241
Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Project plan
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Project schedule
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 244
Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:
A. Product performance.
B. Budget process.
C. Collective capabilities.
D. Organizational strategy.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 246
Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?
A. Information management systems
B. Work performance reports
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Data gathering and representation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 247
The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?
A. Push
B. Pull
C. Interactive
D. Iterative
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 251
An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:
A. stakeholder register.
B. project management plan.
C. project scope statement.
D. requirements management plan.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 254
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
A. Networking
B. Training
C. Negotiation
D. Issue log
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 256
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Quantitative risk analysis
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 260
An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?
A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance
D. Strategic opportunity
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 261
Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 262
Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?
A. Control Quality
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Control Scope
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 267
A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management
D. portfolio management
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 271
As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 272
Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Sequence Activities
C. Define Activities
D. Activity Attributes
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 276
Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?
A. Project Time Management
B. Project Cost Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 280
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?
A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 282
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 284
The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:
A. exploit
B. avoid
C. mitigate
D. share
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 286
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?
A. Probability and impact matrix
B. Contingency analysis report
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Rolling wave plan
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 289
An input to the Identify Risks process is the:
A. Risk register.
B. Risk probability and impact assessment.
C. Communications management plan.
D. Risk management plan.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 294
An input to the Create WBS process is a:
A. project charter.
B. stakeholder register.
C. project scope statement.
D. requirements traceability matrix.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 299
In a project, total float measures the:
A. Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.
B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
C. Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.
D. Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 302
Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?
A. Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure
B. Activity list and Arrow Diagram
C. Change Requests Lists and Organizational Process Assets
D. Project Management Plan and Resource Availability
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 304
Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Develop Project Management Plan
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 309
What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?
A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness
B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers becoming more involved
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 313
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 314
Which of the following is used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project team members?
A. Hierarchical-type charts (HTC)
B. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 317
The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity E is how many days?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 318
A regression line is used to estimate:
A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.
D. The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 323
Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?
A. Define Activities
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Develop Project Charter
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 328
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 329
When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 334
The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-D-G
B. A-B-E-G
C. A-C-F-G
D. A-C-E-G
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 338
Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?
A. Control
B. Bar
C. Flow
D. Pareto
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 343
Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 345
Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?
A. Responsible organization
B. Change requests
C. Validated deliverables
D. Organizational process assets
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 349
Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management?
A. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers
B. Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control
C. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers
D. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 354
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 358
The staffing management plan is part of the:
A. organizational process assets.
B. resource calendar.
C. human resource plan.
D. Develop Project Team process.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 363
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 366
A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?
A. Resource plan
B. Project management plan
C. Cost control plan
D. Expected monetary value plan
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 371
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
A. Before the Define Activities process
B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 375
Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?
A. Project calendar
B. Communication management plan
C. Requested changes
D. Communication requirement plan
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 380
The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:
A. expert judgment.
B. rolling wave planning.
C. work performance information.
D. specification.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 385
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 388
The following is a network diagram for a project.
The total float for the project is how many days?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 390
Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 392
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 394
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 396
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 398
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 400
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 403
Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?
A. Brainstorming
B. Focus groups
C. Affinity diagram
D. Plurality
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 407
A required input for Create WBS is a project:
A. quality plan.
B. schedule network.
C. management document update.
D. scope statement.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 410
A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has
been completed. What is the cost variance?
A. -700
B. -200
C. 200
D. 500
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 413
Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?
A. Conduct periodic project performance reviews.
B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
D. Complete the quality control checklist.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 417
During which process group is the quality policy determined?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 421
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 424
The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity H is how many days?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 11
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 425
The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-C-F-G-I
B. A-B-C-F-H-I
C. A-D-E-F-G-I
D. A-D-E-F-H-I
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 426
Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 428
Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?
A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.
B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.
C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.
D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 430
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 434
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Project scope statement.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Requirements traceability matrix.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 435
What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Contract Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 437
In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?
A. Start-to-start (SS)
B. Start-to-finish (SF)
C. Rnish-to-finish (FF)
D. Finish-to-start (FS)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 441
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter,
B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 442
Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?
A. Product
B. Cost benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 443
The following is a network diagram for a project.
The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 447
A tool and technique used during the Create WBS process is:
A. decomposition
B. expert judgment
C. inspection
D. variance analysis
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 452
Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?
A. The customer and functional managers
B. The risk owners and stakeholders
C. The sponsors and stakeholders
D. The project management team
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 457
Which of the following are placed at selected points in the work breakdown structure (WBS) for performance measurement?
A. Control accounts
B. Milestones
C. Management points
D. Measurement points
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 460
How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
A. Keep satisfied
B. Keep informed
C. Manage closely
D. Monitor
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 463
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 467
Organizations manage portfolios based on which of the following types of plans?
A. Strategic
B. Project
C. Program
D. Operational
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 472
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 477
What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives.
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 481
While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?
A. Communications management plan
B. Human resource plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Procurement management plan
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 486
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 491
Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?
A. Project Quality Plan
B. Project Schedule Network
C. Project Management Software
D. Project Scope Management Plan
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 492
What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?
A. Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business
B. Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area
C. A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives
D. Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 496
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 497
Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define
Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 499
Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:
A. Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.
B. Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.
C. Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.
D. Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 500
Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?
A. Decomposition
B. Inspection
C. Project analysis
D. Document analysis
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 505
Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Requested changes
D. Project management plan
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 507
Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?
A. Product
B. Cost-benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 509
Which of following could be organizational process assets?
A. Historical information
B. Industry standards
C. Organization infrastructure
D. Marketplace conditions
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 513
Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Project document updates
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Change requests
D. Deliverables
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 517
Which of the following are examples of interactive communication?
A. Intranet sites
B. Voice mails
C. Video conferences
D. Press releases
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 520
A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?
A. Risk monitoring and controlling
B. Risk response planning
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Quantitative risk analysis
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 525
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 529
Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk’s probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?
A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
B. Risk probability and impact
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Risk response planning
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 533
Which process requires implementation of approved changes?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Close Project or Phase
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 536
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 537
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project Integration Management?
A. Records management system
B. Expert judgment
C. Project management software
D. Issue log
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 541
What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?
A. $50
B. $100
C. $125
D. $200
Answer: D
Explanation: EAC=BAC/CPI and CPI=EV/AC CPI = EV/ AC = 25/50 = 0.5 EAC = BAC/ CPI = 100/0.5 = $200
NEW QUESTION 545
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?
A. Legal
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. Resource
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 547
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 552
Which of the following correctly lists the configuration management activities included in the Integrated Change Control process?
A. Configuration definition, configuration status accounting, configuration monitoring and control
B. Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, configuration verification and audit
C. Configuration identification, configuration status reporting, configuration verification and audit
D. Configuration definition, configuration status reporting, configuration monitoring and Control
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 555
The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:
A. Determine Budget.
B. Baseline Budget.
C. Control Costs.
D. Estimate Costs.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 557
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?
A. 1.33
B. 2
C. 0.75
D. 0.5
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 558
After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:
A. Estimate Activity Resources.
B. Estimate Activity Durations,
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Control Schedule.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 562
In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Risk Control
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Plan Risk Responses
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 565
Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?
A. Project manager
B. External stakeholders
C. Internal stakeholders
D. Project team
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 567
A process is defined as:
A. A set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a certain objective.
B. A set of guidelines that explains how to carry out a particular task.
C. The inputs for a task and the tools and techniques required to carry out the task.
D. A collection of logically related project activities, usually culminating in the completion of a major deliverable.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 569
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?
A. Project document updates
B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 571
The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:
A. start-to-start (SS)
B. start-to-finish (SF)
C. finish-to-start (FS)
D. finish-to-finish (FF)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 575
Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?
A. Project
B. Functional
C. Program
D. Portfolio
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 580
Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?
A. Schedule
B. Checklist
C. Assumption
D. Cost-Benefit
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 581
Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?
A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 582
Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?
A. Cyclic
B. Progressive
C. Repetitive
D. Iterative
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 586
A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:
A. To the project management plan.
B. To the risk register.
C. In the scope verification processes.
D. And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 589
Which of the following is an output of the Plan Quality process?
A. Project document update
B. Control chart
C. Cost performance baseline
D. Organizational process asset update
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 593
Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?
A. Recommended corrective actions
B. Recommended preventive actions
C. Risk audits
D. Risk reassessments
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 595
When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?
A. Before constraints have been identified
B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 598
A car company authorized a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages. With which of the following strategic considerations was this project mainly concerned?
A. Market demand
B. Legal requirements
C. Strategic Opportunity
D. Technological advance
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 599
Typical outcomes of a project include:
A. Products, services, and improvements.
B. Products, programs, and services.
C. Improvements, portfolios, and services.
D. Improvements, processes, and products.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 603
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 606
When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:
A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects.
B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.
C. linked to specific phases or subprojects.
D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 611
Which of the following tools will be used to produce performance reports that provide information to stakeholders about project cost, schedule progress, and performance?
A. Communications methods
B. Reporting systems
C. Forecasting methods
D. Variance analysis
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 615
Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 619
Based on the following metrics: EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000, and PV=$28,000, what is the project CV?
A. -8000
B. -2000
C. 2000
D. 8000
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 623
An input to Conduct Procurements is:
A. Independent estimates.
B. Selected sellers.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Resource calendars.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 628
Activities on the critical path have which type of float?
A. Zero free float
B. Zero or negative float
C. Negative and positive float
D. Zero or positive float
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 630
How many Project Management Process Groups are there?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 634
To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:
A. scope creep.
B. a change request.
C. work performance information.
D. deliverables.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 638
What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?
A. Organizational chart
B. Organizational theory
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational behavior
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 639
The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?
A. $800
B. $1000
C. $1250
D. $1800
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 643
Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?
A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 647
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:
A. Close Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Plan Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 652
The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:
A. Enterprise environmental factors.
B. Historical information,
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Corporate knowledge base.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 654
A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?
A. Slack
B. Float
C. Lag
D. Lead
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 659
Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project staff assignments
D. Performance reports
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 663
A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?
A. Urgent information need
B. Sensitivity of information
C. Project environment
D. Ease of use
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 667
The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:
A. a control chart.
B. baseline.
C. Create WBS.
D. decomposition.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 670
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?
A. Only once, at the beginning
B. At the beginning and the end
C. Once during each phase
D. Repeatedly
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 672
A Pareto chart is a specific type of:
A. control chart
B. histogram
C. cause-and-effect diagram
D. scatter diagram
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 677
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?
A. Role dependencies chart
B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 679
Which of the following are inputs into the Administer Procurements process?
A. Payment systems, organizational process assets update, and claims administration
B. Inspections and audits, contract change control system, and project management plan updates
C. Procurement documents, performance reports, and approved change requests
D. Project documents, seller proposals, and payment systems
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 684
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 685
Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 690
Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?
A. Cost of changes
B. Stakeholder influences
C. Risk
D. Uncertainty
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 694
Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in a/an:
A. decreased likelihood of conflicting interests between stakeholders.
B. decreased likelihood of the projects progress being impeded.
C. increased likelihood of project failure.
D. increased likelihood of project success.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 696
What’s budget?
A. Monitoring & Controlling
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 698
The Process Group in which the internal and external stakeholders interact and influence the overall outcome of the project is the:
A. Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
B. Initiating Process Group.
C. Planning Process Group.
D. Executing Process Group.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 701
Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?
A. Histograms
B. Scatter diagrams
C. Flowcharts
D. Checksheets
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 705
The Human Resource Management processes are:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.
B. Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 710
In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?
A. Performing
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Forming
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 711
Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
A. Critical path method
B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 716
As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?
A. Communication management activities
B. Change requests
C. Configuration verification and audit
D. Work performance information
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 720
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 721
Which of the following are inputs to the Plan Procurements process?
A. Risk register, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project schedule
B. Risk register, scope baseline, make-or-buy decisions, organizational process assets, project schedule
C. Project management plan, qualified seller list, contract, enterprise environmental factors, teaming agreements
D. Project management plan, qualified seller list, contract, make-or-buy decisions, teaming agreements
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 724
Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?
A. Configuration Identification
B. Configuration Status Accounting
C. Configuration Verification and Audit
D. Configuration Quality Assurance
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 725
Inputs to the Define Activities process include:
A. Project scope statement, resource calendars, and work performance information.
B. Scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
C. Project scope statement, approved change requests, and WBS dictionary.
D. Scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 730
In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Risk monitoring and control
C. Monitor and control project work
D. Risk response planning
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 733
The three types of estimates that PERT uses to define an approximate range for an activity’s cost are:
A. Parametric, most likely, and analogous.
B. Least likely, analogous, and realistic.
C. Parametric, optimistic, and pessimistic.
D. Most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 735
The traditional organization chart structure that can be used to show positions and relationships in a graphic top-down format is called a:
A. Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) chart.
B. Matrix-based chart.
C. Human resource chart.
D. Hierarchical-type chart.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 738
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
A. The project management plan.
B. The stakeholder register.
C. Procurement documents.
D. Stakeholder analysis.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 743
Resource calendars are included in the:
A. staffing management plan.
B. work breakdown structure (WBS).
C. project communications plan.
D. project charter.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 745
Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?
A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution
B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)
C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request
D. Market demand and/or legal requirements
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 746
Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?
A. Vendor bid analysis
B. Three-point estimates
C. Parametric estimating
D. Reserve analysis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 748
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 753
Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?
A. -8000
B. -2000
C. 2000
D. 8000
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 757
Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?
A. Influencing
B. Motivation
C. Negotiation
D. Trust building
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 758
Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?
A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
B. Report Performance
C. Distribute Information
D. Plan Communications
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 763
Which of the following correctly describes when organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk?
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk management
D. Risk attitude
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 765
The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:
A. adaptive
B. reflexive
C. predictive
D. iterative
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 768
Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of management to gather organizational support and promote project benefits?
A. Portfolio manager
B. Project sponsor
C. Project manager
D. Project management office
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 773
Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?
A. Teaming agreements
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 776
Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:
A. project documents updates.
B. project management plan updates.
C. change requests.
D. work performance information.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 781
An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:
A. defect repair
B. work repair
C. corrective action
D. preventive action
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 786
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 791
For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:
A. Monitor the stakeholder.
B. Manage the stakeholder closely.
C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
D. Keep the stakeholder informed.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 794
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 797
The project manager has requested all expert team members to complete an anonymous questionnaire to identify possible risks. This is an example of a technique known as the:
A. interview technique
B. information gathering technique
C. Delphi technique
D. feedback technique
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 800
Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?
A. Control Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 803
When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict?
A. Clear role definition
B. Negotiation
C. Risk response planning
D. Team member replacement
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 806
The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:
A. minus planned value [EV - PV].
B. minus actual cost [EV - AC].
C. divided by planned value [EV/PV],
D. divided by actual cost [EV/AC].
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 809
Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational process assets are all outputs of which project management process?
A. Risk response planning
B. Manage stakeholders
C. Scope definition
D. Performance reporting
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 812
A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:
A. Communication models.
B. Stakeholder participation.
C. Expert judgment
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Answer: C
Explanation: Topic 4, Monitoring and Controlling
NEW QUESTION 816
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 819
Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Affinity diagram
C. Tree diagram
D. Activity network diagram
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 823
An output of Control Schedule is:
A. A project schedule network diagram
B. A schedule management plan
C. Schedule data
D. Schedule forecasts
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 824
Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?
A. Project Plan
B. Responsibility Matrix
C. Issue Log
D. Scope Document
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 829
Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Plan Cost Management
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 831
Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:
A. Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests
B. Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools
C. Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project
D. Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 832
The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:
A. Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.
B. Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.
C. Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.
D. Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 836
In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project schedule
D. Resource calendars
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 837
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Estimate Activity Resources
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 838
Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?
A. Update
B. Preventive action
C. Defect repair
D. Corrective action
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 840
Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?
A. Performance measure
B. Baseline schedule
C. Schedule network analysis
D. Variance analysis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 843
Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Decomposition
B. Modeling techniques
C. Resource optimization
D. Meetings
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 845
Analyzing the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) of a project is known as:
A. calculating cost of quality
B. comparing project benefits
C. performing measurements analysis
D. identifying risks
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 849
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 851
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 852
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 857
The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).
B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).
C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).
D. Time and Material Contract (T&M).
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 862
In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:
A. enterprise environmental factors.
B. organizational process assets.
C. project management plan,
D. project funding requirements.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 866
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:
A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct,
C. collaborate/problem solve,
D. compromise/reconcile.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 869
The Administer Procurements process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Executing
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 870
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A. Cost baseline
B. Cost forecasting
C. Cost variance
D. Cost budgeting
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 873
What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 875
Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management software
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Reserve analysis
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 878
Schedule milestones and a predefined budget are examples of:
A. Project constraints.
B. Requirements documentation.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Activity cost estimates.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 880
What is the critical chain method?
A. A technique to calculate the theoretical early start and finish dates and late start and finish dates
B. A schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources
C. A schedule compression technique that analyzes cost and schedule trade-offs to determine how to obtain the greatest amount of compression for the least incremental cost
D. A technique to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 882
Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
A. Cost Control
B. Quality Planning
C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Cost Budgeting
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 885
Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 886
The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?
A. US$158,700
B. US$172,500
C. US$187,500
D. US$245,600
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 888
An input of the Control Schedule process is the:
A. resource calendar.
B. activity list.
C. risk management plan.
D. organizational process assets.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 891
Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?
A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 894
Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?
A. Collaboration
B. Negotiation
C. Decision making
D. Influencing
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 899
What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?
A. Scope changes
B. Resource limitations
C. Risk analysis
D. Quality audits
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 901
Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Quality Metrics
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Plan Quality
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 903
Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?
A. Work performance data
B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 907
Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
A. expert judgment and change requests
B. work performance information and change requests
C. project management plan updates and work performance information
D. issue logs and organizational process assets updates
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 911
When a control chart is used to monitor performance of a process, which of the following will be set by the project manager and the appropriate stakeholders to reflect the point(s) at which corrective action will be taken to prevent exceeding the specification limits?
A. Upper and lower control limits
B. Upper and lower specification limits
C. Process mean
D. Data points
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 914
An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Validated changes.
C. The change log.
D. The requirements traceability matrix.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 917
The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:
A. quality.
B. value.
C. technical performance.
D. status.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 922
Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions
B. Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating
C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts
D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 925
Cost aggregation is typically performed by aggregating work packages in accordance with the:
A. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
B. Cost of quality (COQ).
C. Rough order of magnitude (ROM).
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 927
Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 932
Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)
B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
C. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 937
Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?
A. 100
B. 120
C. 1,000
D. 1,200
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 939
Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?
A. Plan Cost Management
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Plan Stakeholder Management
D. Plan Schedule Management
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 940
The chart below is an example of a:
A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. RACI chart
D. Requirements traceability matrix
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 943
Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Change requests
B. Performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Project management plan
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 944
Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 949
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 951
Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?
A. Applying calendars
B. Resource leveling
C. Resource planning
D. Resource conflict management
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 953
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 956
Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?
A. Internal failure costs
B. Prevention costs
C. Appraisal costs
D. External failure costs
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 957
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 959
Cost variance (CV) is equal to earned value:
A. Minus actual cost [EV - AC].
B. Minus planned value [EV - PV].
C. Divided by actual cost [EV/AC].
D. Divided by planned value [EV/PV].
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 964
When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:
A. event.
B. response,
C. perception.
D. impact.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 968
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 970
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
A. The best use of communication methods.
B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 973
An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Make-or-buy decisions.
B. Activity cost estimates.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Procurement documents.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 976
The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual cost of the project?
A. US$158,700
B. US$172,500
C. US$187,500
D. US$245,600
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 978
Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Close Project
D. Develop Project Charter
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 981
A tool or technique used during the Administer Procurements process is:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Bidder conference.
C. Procurement negotiation.
D. Performance reporting.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 984
Budgets reserved for unplanned changes to project scope and cost are:
A. Contingency reserves.
B. Management reserves.
C. Authorized budgets.
D. Cost baselines.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 989
At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:
A. low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
B. low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
C. high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
D. high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 993
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 995
Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation is a focus of which of the following?
A. Project management
B. Program management
C. Portfolio management
D. Relationship management
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 997
Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?
A. Inspection
B. Quality audits
C. Design of experiments
D. Root cause analysis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 999
A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:
A. budget at completion (BAC)
B. earned value management (EVM)
C. to-complete performance index
D. cost performance index
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 1001
Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Plan Quality
D. Report Performance
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1002
Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?
A. Schedule network analysis
B. Reserve analysis
C. Alternative analysis
D. Variance analysis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 1007
The cost performance baseline is typically displayed in the form of:
A. An S-curve.
B. A normal curve.
C. A U-curve.
D. A positive slope line.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1012
Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 1015
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 1019
When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:
A. lead
B. lag
C. mandatory dependency
D. internal dependency
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1021
What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 1024
Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Person responsible for project scheduling
D. Person who is most familiar with the task
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 1028
Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
A. Facilitated workshops
B. Interviews
C. Inspection
D. Meetings
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 1031
Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?
A. Estimate at completion
B. Cost performance
C. Schedule performance
D. To-complete performance
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 1034
Which of the following tools and techniques is used to estimate cost?
A. Budget forecast
B. Variance analysis
C. Activity cost estimate
D. Three-point estimate
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 1037
A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:
A. Quality assurance.
B. A stakeholder management plan.
C. Project team building.
D. Integrated change control.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 1040
A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:
A. risk data quality assessment.
B. variance and trend analysis.
C. data gathering and representation techniques.
D. risk audits.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1041
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 1045
An input to Close Project or Phase is:
A. Accepted deliverables,
B. Final products or services,
C. Document updates,
D. Work performance information.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1048
When is a project finished?
A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor
B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
C. When the project objectives have been met
D. After resources have been released
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 1053
Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?
A. Portfolio
B. Process
C. Project
D. Program
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 1057
When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:
A. training, testing, and warranty work.
B. equipment, rework, and scrap.
C. training, document processes, and inspections.
D. inspections, rework, and warranty work.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 1062
Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?
A. Purchase requisition
B. Purchase order
C. Verbal agreement
D. Request for quote
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 1066
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1070
The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:
A. Validate Scope.
B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Control Quality.
D. Verify Scope.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1075
Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:
A. Decision tree diagram.
B. Tornado diagram.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Ishikawa diagram.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 1076
Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:
A. buyers
B. sellers
C. business partners
D. product users
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 1079
Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 1082
A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?
A. US$S000
B. US$9500
C. US$10,000
D. US$12,500
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 1084
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
A. Close Project or Phase
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Answer: D
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